CCNA 4 Routing & Switching Essentials Ver 6.0 – ITN Final Exam Answers

CCNA 4 Routing & Switching Essentials Ver 6.0 – ITN Final Exam Answers
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  1. Which two WAN technologies are more likely to be used by a business than by teleworkers or home users? (Choose two.)



    Frame Relay*



  2. The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?

    VPN gateway

    VPN appliance

    VPN concentrator

    VPN client software*

  3. How many DS0 channels are bundled to produce a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?





  4. What function is provided by Multilink PPP?

    spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links*

    dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

    enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

    creating one logical link between two LAN switches via the use of multiple physical links

  5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the PPP link between the routers R1 and R2. However, the link cannot be established. Based on the partial output of the show running-config command, what is the cause of the problem?

    CCNA4 v6.0 Final Exam 012

    The usernames do not match each other.

    The usernames do not match the host names.*

    The passwords for CHAP should be in lowercase.

    The username r1 should be configured on the router R1 and the username r2 should be configured on the router R2.

  6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?




    data link*


  7. Which statement best describes a WAN?

    A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.*

    A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.

    WAN is another name for the Internet.

    A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.

  8. Connecting offices at different locations using the Internet can be economical for a business. What are two important business policy issues that should be addressed when using the Internet for this purpose? (Choose two.)





    WAN technology

  9. What is a disadvafntage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

    higher cost

    fixed capacity

    less flexibility

    higher latency*

  10. A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Choose two.)


    leased line*

    Ethernet WAN

    municipal Wi-Fi

    digital subscriber line

  11. Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

    It supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.

    It enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.

    It can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*

    It assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.

  12. Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?



    Frame Relay

    Ethernet WAN

  13. What advantage does DSL have compared to cable technology?

    DSL upload and download speeds are always the same.

    DSL is faster.

    DSL has no distance limitations.

    DSL is not a shared medium.*

  14. Which broadband technology would be best for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains and at sea?

    Wi-Fi Mesh

    mobile broadband



  15. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

    dialup analog modem

    dialup ISDN modem



  16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the network administrator verifying when issuing the show ip interface brief command on R1 in respect to the PPPoE connection to R2?

    that the Dialer1 interface has been manually assigned an IP address

    that the Dialer1 interface is up and up

    that the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router*

    that the IP address on R1 G0/1 is in the same network range as the DSL modem

  17. Which technology creates a mapping of public IP addresses for remote tunnel spokes in a DMVPN configuration?





  18. What is the purpose of the generic routing encapsulation tunneling protocol?

    to provide packet level encryption of IP traffic between remote sites

    to manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites*

    to support basic unencrypted IP tunneling using multivendor routers between remote sites

    to provide fixed flow-control mechanisms with IP tunneling between remote sites

  19. Refer to the exhibit. What is used to exchange routing information between routers within each AS?

    static routing

    IGP routing protocols*

    EGP routing protocols

    default routing

  20. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by with wildcard mask to to to* to

  21. Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:


    Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?

    Hera(config)# interface fa0/0
    Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0
    Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0
    Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1
    Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    Athena(config)# interface s0/0/1
    Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    Athena(config)# interface fa0/0
    Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out*

  22. What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

    They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.*

    They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.

    They should be placed on the fastest interface available.

    They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

  23. In the creation of an IPv6 ACL, what is the purpose of the implicit final command entries, permit icmp any any nd-na and permit icmp any any nd-ns?

    to allow IPv6 to MAC address resolution*

    to allow forwarding of IPv6 multicast packets

    to allow automatic address configuration

    to allow forwarding of ICMPv6 packets

  24. A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

    only a standard ACL

    a standard or extended ACL

    only an extended ACL

    an extended, named, or numbered ACL

    only a named ACL*

  25. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

    CCNA4 v6.0 Final Exam 013

    HTTPS packets to PC1

    ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1*

    packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80

    neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

  26. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

    Configure SSH.*

    Configure Telnet.

    Configure 802.1x.

    Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.

  27. What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?





  28. Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?




    authentication server

  29. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)






  30. In configuring SNMPv3, what is the purpose of creating an ACL?

    to define the source traffic that is allowed to create a VPN tunnel

    to define the type of traffic that is allowed on the management network

    to specify the source addresses allowed to access the SNMP agent*

    to define the protocols allowed to be used for authentication and encryption

  31. Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?

    CCNA4 v6.0 Final Exam 003

    a manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut

    a manager who is using an Inform Request MIB

    a manager who is using host*

    a manager who is using authPriv

  32. Which Cisco feature sends copies of frames entering one port to a different port on the same switch in order to perform traffic analysis?





  33. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)

    Video traffic is more resilient to loss than voice traffic is.

    Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.*

    Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms.*

    Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth.

    Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes.

  34. Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?





  35. Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

    traffic shaping*

    weighted random early detection

    classification and marking

    traffic policing

  36. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?




    IP precedence

  37. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

    A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.

    A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.*

    A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.

    A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.

  38. A vibration sensor on an automated production line detects an unusual condition. The sensor communicates with a controller that automatically shuts down the line and activates an alarm. What type of communication does this scenario represent?





  39. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

    data analytics

    fog computing*

    network connectivity

    application enhancement platform

  40. Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?





  41. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?



    maintaining communication integrity

    online collaboration

  42. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets?

    the ARP table*

    the routing table

    the FIB

    the DSP

  43. Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?

    the Nexus 9000 switch

    the Application Network Profile endpoints

    the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*

    the hypervisor

  44. Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)

    device type

    OS/IOS version

    connection type*

    interface identifier*

    cable specification

    cable type and identifier

  45. Which network performance statistics should be measured in order to verify SLA compliance?

    NAT translation statistics

    device CPU and memory utilization

    latency, jitter, and packet loss*

    the number of error messages that are logged on the syslog server

  46. Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations?


    IP SLA*



  47. Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?

    protocol analyzer*

    baselining tool

    knowledge base


  48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?

    CCNA4 v6.0 Final Exam 011

    The serial interface on Router2 is down.

    The OSPF process is not running on Router2.

    The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.

    There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network on Router2.*

  49. Refer to the exhibit. A user turns on a PC after it is serviced and calls the help desk to report that the PC seems unable to reach the Internet. The technician asks the user to issue the arp –a and ipconfig commands. Based on the output, what are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)

    The IP configuration is incorrect.*

    The network cable is unplugged.

    The DNS server address is not configured.

    The subnet mask is configured incorrectly.

    The default gateway device cannot be contacted.*

  50. Match OoS techniques with the description. (Not all options are used.)

    Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

    when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*

    when the network will span multiple buildings

    when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

    when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN

  51. What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)

    DNS servers

    satellite service*

    web hosting service

    telephone company*

    Internet search engine service

  52. Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found on a LAN? (Choose two.)

    access layer switch

    broadband modem*

    core switch


    distribution layer router

  53. What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

    It replaces SONET and SDH technologies.

    It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.*

    It provides Layer 3 support for long distance data communications.

    It provides a 10 Gb/s multiplexed signal over analog copper telephone lines.

  54. What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?

    less efficient*

    lacks SVC support

    does not scale well to provide high speed WAN connections

    requires multiple interfaces on the edge router to support multiple VCs

  55. Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network?



    Frame Relay



  56. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

    private infrastructure

    public infrastructure*




  57. What device is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers?




    access server

  58. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

    dial-up connection

    leased line connection

    site-to-site VPN over the Internet

    remote access VPN over the Internet*

  59. What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?





  60. Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router?

    CCNA4 v6.0 Final Exam Form B 001


    Frame Relay



  61. Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection? (Choose two.)

    identifying fault conditions for the PPP link

    providing multilink capabilities over the PPP link

    bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down*

    enhancing security by providing callback over PPP

    negotiating options for the IP protocol*

    managing authentication of the peer routers of the PPP link

  62. What PPP information will be displayed if a network engineer issues the show ppp multilink command on Cisco router?

    the link LCP and NCP status

    the queuing type on the link

    the IP addresses of the link interfaces

    the serial interfaces participating in the multilink*

  63. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

    Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

    Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.

    Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.

    Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.*

  64. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
    R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
    R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
    What is the effect of these commands?

    The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*

    The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

    The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

    The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

  65. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

    Power is always provided.

    Less energy is consumed.

    Server provisioning is faster.

    Hardware does not have to be identical.*

  66. Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?





  67. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?





  68. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller?

    control plane*

    data plane


    application policies

  69. What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub router R1 to look like if connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration? is subnetted, 2 subnetted
    C is directly connected, Dialer1
    C is directly connected, Dialer2

    S* is directly connected, Dialer1 is subnetted, 2 subnetted
    C is directly connected, Dialer

    S* is directly connected, Dialer1 is subnetted, 2 subnetted
    C is directly connected, Dialer1
    C is directly connected, Dialer1*

  70. What is a benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network design?

    A DMVPN will use an encrypted session and does not require IPsec.

    A DMVPN uses a Layer 3 protocol, NHRP, to dynamically establish tunnels.

    A DMVPN will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one.*

    A DMVPN uses mGRE to create multiple GRE interfaces that each support a single VPN tunnel.

  71. Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling?

    a mobile user who connects to a router at a central site

    a branch office that connects securely to a central site

    a mobile user who connects to a SOHO site

    a central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption*

  72. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?


  73. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

    They are configured in the interface configuration mode.

    They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.*

    They can be created with a number but not with a name.

    They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

  74. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

    access list number between 1 and 99

    access list number between 100 and 199*

    default gateway address and wildcard mask

    destination address and wildcard mask*

    source address and wildcard mask*

    source subnet mask and wildcard mask

    destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

  75. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host while still permitting all other traffic from the network?

    Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*

    Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

    Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

    Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

  76. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

    deny ip any any

    deny ipv6 any any*

    permit ipv6 any any

    deny icmp any any

    permit icmp any any nd-ns*

    permit icmp any any nd-na*

  77. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    access-class 5 in*

    access-list 5 deny any

    access-list standard VTY

    access-list 5 permit*

    ip access-group 5 out

    ip access-group 5 in

  78. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

    permit ip any any

    permit ip any host ip_address

    permit icmp any any nd-na*

    deny ip any any

  79. What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

    so that the switch stops forwarding traffic

    so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address

    so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts*

    so that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

  80. What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)

    fog computing*

    wearable technologies

    data analytics*

    robot guides

    cyber and physical security*

    smart bandages

  81. What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table overflow attacks?

    port security*

    DHCP snooping

    IP source guard

    Dynamic ARP Inspection

  82. Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling?

    SNMP set messages

    SNMP trap messages*

    SNMP get messages

    SNMP community strings

  83. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

    packet encryption

    message integrity

    community strings*

    source validation

  84. features

  85. What two are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

    bulk MIB objects retrieval


    authorization with community string priority


    ACL management filtering

  86. Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?





  87. Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?

    Type of Service field

    Traffic Class field

    Priority field*

    Version field

  88. What is an example of cloud computing?

    a continuous interaction between people, processes, data, and things

    a service that offers on-demand access to shared resources*

    a network infrastructure that spans a large geographic area

    an architectural style of the World Wide Web

  89. Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?

    a host operating system

    a server running VMware Fusion

    a management console*

    a dedicated VLAN

  90. A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in order to solve a problem. However, the problem is not solved. Which step should the technician take next?

    Gather symptoms.

    Isolate the problem.

    Restore the previous configuration.*

    Implement the next possible corrective action.

  91. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?





  92. What is a primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature?

    to detect potential network attacks

    to provide network connectivity for customers

    to adjust network device configurations to avoid congestion

    to measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible*

  93. Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?

    level 0*

    level 1

    level 4

    level 7

  94. Which symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer?

    A misconfigured firewall blocks traffic to a file server.

    There are too many invalid frames transmitted in the network.

    Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers.*

    A web server cannot be reached by its domain name, but can be reached via its IP address.

  95. Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4 and H5?

    CCNA4 v6.0 Final Exam Form B 008

    Router R1 does not have a route to the destination network.

    Switch S1 does not have an IP address configured.

    The link between router R1 and switch S2 has failed.

    Host H1 does not have a default gateway configured.*

    Hosts H4 and H5 are members of a different VLAN than host H1.

  96. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

    There is connectivity between this device and the device at*

    The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.

    There are 4 hops between this device and the device at*

    The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

    This host does not have a default gateway configured.

  97. Fill in the blanks. Use dotted decimal format.

    The wildcard mask that is associated with is

  98. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol. (Not all options are used.)

  99. Match the term to the description. (Not all options are used.)

  100. What is a primary difference between a company LAN and the WAN services that it uses?

    The company must subscribe to an external WAN service provider.*

    The company has direct control over its WAN links but not over its LAN.

    Each LAN has a specified demarcation point to clearly separate access layer and distribution layer equipment.

    The LAN may use a number of different network access layer standards whereas the WAN will use only one standard.

  101. To which two layers of the OSI model do WAN technologies provide services? (Choose two.)

    network layer

    session layer

    physical layer*

    transport layer

    data link layer*

    presentation layer

  102. Which two technologies are private WAN technologies? (Choose two.)


    Frame Relay*




  103. Which WAN technology can switch any type of payload based on labels?





  104. What technology can be used to create a private WAN via satellite communications?


    3G/4G cellular




  105. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection?





  106. How many DS0 channels are bounded to produce a 1.544 Mb/s DS1 line?





  107. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

    interface reset

    unplugged cable

    improper cable type

    PPP issue*

  108. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Layer 2 encapsulation used for connection D requires Cisco routers?





  109. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

    PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.*

    PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.

    PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

    PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*

    PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.*

  110. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

    establishes identities with a two-way handshake

    uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities*

    control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events

    transmits login information in encrypted format*

    uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks*

    makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

  111. Which cellular or mobile wireless standard is considered a fourth generation technology?





  112. A company is looking for the least expensive broadband solution that provides at least 10 Mb/s download speed. The company is located 5 miles from the nearest provider. Which broadband solution would be appropriate?





  113. Which technology can ISPs use to periodically challenge broadband customers over DSL networks with PPPoE?




    Frame Relay

  114. What are the three core components of the Cisco ACI architecture? (Choose three.)

    Application Network Profile*

    Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*

    Cisco Nexus Switches*

    Microsoft hypervisor

    Cisco Information Server

    Virtual Security Gateway

  115. Which statement describes a feature of site-to-site VPNs?

    The VPN connection is not statically defined.

    VPN client software is installed on each host.

    Internal hosts send normal, unencapsulated packets.*

    Individual hosts can enable and disable the VPN connection.

  116. What are three features of a GRE tunnel? (Choose three.)

    creates nonsecure tunnels between remote sites*

    transports multiple Layer 3 protocols*

    creates additional packet overhead*

    uses RSA signatures to authenticate peeers

    provides encryption to keep VPN traffic confidential

    supports hosts as GRE tunnel endpoints by installing Cisco VPN client software

  117. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are needed to complete the GRE tunnel configuration on router R1? (Choose two.)

    R1(config-if)# tunnel source*

    R1(config-if)# tunnel source

    R1(config-if)# tunnel destination*

    R1(config-if)# tunnel destination

    R1(config-if)# tunnel source

    R1(config-if)# tunnel destination

  118. What does BGP use to exchange routing updates with neighbors?

    TCP connections*

    area numbers

    group identification numbers


  119. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of needs to have access to the corporate FTP server ( The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)

    access-list 105 permit ip host host
    access-list 105 permit tcp any host eq www
    access-list 105 permit ip any any

    access-list 105 permit tcp host any eq www
    access-list 105 permit tcp host host eq 20
    access-list 105 permit tcp host host eq 21

    access-list 105 permit tcp host host eq 20
    access-list 105 permit tcp host host eq 21
    access-list 105 permit tcp host eq www
    access-list 105 deny ip any host
    access-list 105 permit ip any any*

    R2(config)# interface gi0/0
    R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in

    R1(config)# interface gi0/0
    R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out*

    R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
    R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

  120. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the network. The administrator attempts to add a new statement to the ACL that denies packets from host and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host while still permitting all other traffic from the network?

    Manually add the new deny statement with a sequence number of 5.*

    Manually add the new deny statement with a sequence number of 15.

    Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

    Add a deny any any statement to access-list 1.

  121. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?

    The ACL is missing the deny ip any any ACE.

    Because there are no matches for line 10, the ACL is not working.

    The ACL is only monitoring traffic destined for from three specific hosts.

    The router has not had any Telnet packets from that are destined for*

  122. What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?

    named standard

    named extended*

    numbered standard

    numbered extended

  123. Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

    permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25*

    permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 25

    permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 23

    permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 23

  124. Refer to the exhibit. Considering how packets are processed on a router that is configured with ACLs, what is the correct order of the statements?






  125. Which two hypervisors are suitable to support virtual machines in a data center? (Choose two.)

    Virtual PC

    VMware Fusion

    VMware ESX/ESXi*

    Oracle VM VirtualBox

    Microsoft Hyper-V 2012

  126. How can DHCP spoofing attacks be mitigated?

    by disabling DTP negotiations on nontrunking ports

    by implementing DHCP snooping on trusted ports*

    by implementing port security

    by the application of the ip verify source command to untrusted ports

  127. What action can a network administrator take to help mitigate the threat of VLAN attacks?

    Disable VTP.

    Configure all switch ports to be members of VLAN 1.

    Disable automatic trunking negotiation.*

    Enable PortFast on all switch ports.

  128. Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

    GET request

    SET request

    GET response


  129. Refer to the exhibit. A SNMP manager is using the community string of snmpenable and is configured with the IP address The SNMP manager is unable to read configuration variables on the R1 SNMP agent. What could be the problem?

    The SNMP agent is not configured for read-only access.

    The community of snmpenable2 is incorrectly configured on the SNMP agent.

    The ACL is not permitting access by the SNMP manager.*

    The incorrect community string is configured on the SNMP manager.

  130. Refer to the exhibit. Which SNMP authentication password must be used by the member of the ADMIN group that is configured on router R1?





  131. A network administrator has noticed an unusual amount of traffic being received on a switch port that is connected to a college classroom computer. Which tool would the administrator use to make the suspicious traffic available for analysis at the college data center?




    DHCP snooping


  132. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis?





  133. Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion the delay between each packet varies and is causing broken conversations. What term describes the cause of this condition?





  134. What mechanism compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then replaying them outbound in a steady stream?

    digital signal processor

    playout delay buffer*

    voice codec


  135. Which type of network traffic cannot be managed using congestion avoidance tools?





  136. A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?

    Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.*

    Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

    Interview departmental administrative assistants to determine if web pages are loading more quickly.

    Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

  137. In which stage of the troubleshooting process would ownership be researched and documented?

    Gather symptoms.*

    Implement corrective action.

    Isolate the problem.

    Update the user and document the problem.

  138. Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?

    a less-structured approach based on an educated guess*

    an approach comparing working and nonworking components to spot significant differences

    a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving up through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified

    an approach that starts with the end-user applications and moves down through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem has been identified

  139. A router has been configured to use simulated network traffic in order to monitor the network performance between the router and a distant network device. Which command would display the results of this analysis?

    show ip route

    show ip protocols

    show ip sla statistics*

    show monitor

  140. Which type of tool would an administrator use to capture packets that are going to and from a particular device?

    NMS tool

    knowledge base

    baselining tool

    protocol analyzer*

  141. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)

    R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.*

    R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is entered.

    R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.

    R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.

    The syslog server has the IPv4 address*

  142. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

    The router has an incorrect gateway.

    Host A has an overlapping network address.

    Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.

    Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.

    NAT is required for the host A network.*

  143. Match the operation to the appropriate QoS model.

  144. Match the cloud model with the description.

  145. Match the cloud model with the description.

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